Nursing MCQ Questions: The Ultimate Guide for Competitive Exam Preparation series 1

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Nursing is one of the most respected and rewarding professions in the healthcare industry. It requires extensive knowledge, critical thinking, and hands-on skills to provide the best possible care to patients. For aspiring nurses and professionals looking to advance in their careers, clearing nursing competitive exams is a crucial step. These exams assess candidates’ understanding of fundamental nursing concepts, medical-surgical procedures, pharmacology, pediatrics, and other specialized areas of nursing.

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One of the most effective ways to prepare for these exams is by practicing nursing MCQ questions. Multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are a common format in nursing entrance and licensing exams, including NCLEX, AIIMS, PGIMER, JIPMER, and other state and national-level nursing recruitment tests. Practicing nursing MCQ questions not only helps candidates reinforce their theoretical knowledge but also improves their ability to analyze and apply concepts in real-life scenarios.

In this post, we have compiled 100 high-quality nursing MCQ questions covering a wide range of topics, including Fundamentals of Nursing, Anatomy and Physiology, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Obstetrics and Gynecology, Pediatrics, Pharmacology, Community Health Nursing, and Mental Health Nursing. These questions will help nursing students, fresh graduates, and experienced professionals assess their knowledge and improve their exam-taking skills.

Why Practice Nursing MCQ Questions?

Competitive nursing exams are designed to test a candidate’s proficiency in various domains of nursing. The best way to enhance problem-solving skills and recall important concepts is through continuous practice. Here are some reasons why nursing MCQ questions are essential for exam preparation:

1. Enhances Knowledge Retention

MCQs help reinforce key concepts and enable candidates to recall information quickly. When candidates repeatedly answer nursing MCQ questions, they strengthen their memory and understanding of core nursing topics.

2. Improves Time Management

Nursing competitive exams are time-sensitive, requiring candidates to answer multiple questions within a limited time. Practicing MCQs helps candidates improve their speed and accuracy, ensuring they can complete the exam efficiently.

3. Familiarizes Candidates with Exam Patterns

Most nursing exams, including NCLEX-RN, NIMHANS, and AIIMS Nursing Officer exams, use MCQs as a primary question format. Regular practice with nursing MCQ questions helps candidates become comfortable with the exam pattern, question framing, and difficulty level.

4. Identifies Strengths and Weaknesses

Solving MCQs regularly allows candidates to analyze their strong and weak areas. By focusing on weaker subjects, they can work on improving their knowledge and boosting their overall exam performance.

5. Encourages Critical Thinking and Decision-Making

Many nursing MCQ questions require candidates to apply their theoretical knowledge to clinical situations. This enhances their ability to think critically, make informed decisions, and improve patient care skills.

nursing mcq

Key Topics Covered in Nursing MCQ Questions

To succeed in nursing exams, candidates must have a strong understanding of multiple subjects. The following are some essential topics covered in nursing MCQ questions:

  • Fundamentals of Nursing – Basic nursing procedures, infection control, patient safety, and nursing ethics.
  • Anatomy and Physiology – Structure and function of human body systems, including cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, and endocrine systems.
  • Medical-Surgical Nursing – Disease management, emergency care, surgical procedures, and post-operative nursing care.
  • Obstetrics and Gynecology – Pregnancy, childbirth, neonatal care, and common gynecological disorders.
  • Pediatrics – Growth and development, childhood diseases, vaccination schedules, and pediatric nursing interventions.
  • Pharmacology – Drug classifications, administration routes, side effects, and drug interactions.
  • Community Health Nursing – Epidemiology, public health initiatives, disease prevention, and family health care.
  • Mental Health Nursing – Psychiatric disorders, therapeutic communication, and psychiatric medications.

1. Fundamentals of Nursing

  1. Which is the most basic human need according to Maslow’s hierarchy?
    a) Safety and security
    b) Physiological needs
    c) Love and belonging
    d) Self-actualization
    Answer: b
  2. What does SOAP stand for in nursing documentation?
    a) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
    b) Safety, Observation, Assessment, Planning
    c) Standard, Objective, Analysis, Procedure
    d) Subjective, Outcome, Assessment, Procedure
    Answer: a
  3. What is the first step in the nursing process?
    a) Implementation
    b) Diagnosis
    c) Planning
    d) Assessment
    Answer: d
  4. Which type of precaution is used for patients with tuberculosis?
    a) Airborne precautions
    b) Contact precautions
    c) Droplet precautions
    d) Standard precautions
    Answer: a
  5. What is the normal range of body temperature in Celsius?
    a) 36.5–37.5°C
    b) 37.0–38.0°C
    c) 35.5–36.5°C
    d) 38.0–39.0°C
    Answer: a

2. Anatomy and Physiology

  1. What is the functional unit of the kidney?
    a) Alveoli
    b) Nephron
    c) Glomerulus
    d) Tubule
    Answer: b
  2. How many lobes does the right lung have?
    a) Two
    b) Three
    c) Four
    d) Five
    Answer: b
  3. Which cranial nerve controls vision?
    a) Optic nerve
    b) Trigeminal nerve
    c) Vagus nerve
    d) Olfactory nerve
    Answer: a
  4. Where is bile stored in the body?
    a) Liver
    b) Pancreas
    c) Gallbladder
    d) Small intestine
    Answer: c
  5. What is the largest artery in the human body?
    a) Femoral artery
    b) Aorta
    c) Carotid artery
    d) Pulmonary artery
    Answer: b

3. Medical-Surgical Nursing

  1. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias?
    a) Hypernatremia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hyperkalemia
    d) Hyponatremia
    Answer: b
  2. What is the universal donor blood type?
    a) A+
    b) B+
    c) O-
    d) AB+
    Answer: c
  3. What is the hallmark symptom of appendicitis?
    a) Pain in the lower left quadrant
    b) Pain in the right upper quadrant
    c) Pain in the lower right quadrant
    d) Diffuse abdominal pain
    Answer: c
  4. Which lab test monitors long-term glucose control in diabetes?
    a) Random blood sugar
    b) Fasting blood sugar
    c) HbA1c
    d) Oral glucose tolerance test
    Answer: c
  5. What is the normal range of sodium in the blood?
    a) 120–130 mEq/L
    b) 135–145 mEq/L
    c) 150–160 mEq/L
    d) 125–135 mEq/L
    Answer: b

4. Obstetrics and Gynecology

  1. What is the average duration of a menstrual cycle?
    a) 20–25 days
    b) 28–32 days
    c) 35–40 days
    d) 15–20 days
    Answer: b
  2. Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy?
    a) Progesterone
    b) Estrogen
    c) Oxytocin
    d) Prolactin
    Answer: a
  3. What is the APGAR score used for?
    a) Diagnosing pregnancy complications
    b) Assessing newborn health
    c) Monitoring labor progression
    d) Calculating gestational age
    Answer: b
  4. What is the term for the first movement of the fetus felt by the mother?
    a) Quickening
    b) Engagement
    c) Lightening
    d) Braxton Hicks
    Answer: a
  5. Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss of more than:
    a) 250 mL after vaginal delivery
    b) 500 mL after vaginal delivery
    c) 750 mL after vaginal delivery
    d) 1000 mL after vaginal delivery
    Answer: b

5. Pediatrics

  1. What is the normal respiratory rate for a newborn?
    a) 10–20 breaths/min
    b) 30–60 breaths/min
    c) 20–30 breaths/min
    d) 60–90 breaths/min
    Answer: b
  2. Which vaccine is given at birth?
    a) Measles
    b) BCG
    c) DPT
    d) Polio
    Answer: b
  3. What is the first stool of a newborn called?
    a) Feces
    b) Meconium
    c) Transitional stool
    d) Neonatal stool
    Answer: b
  4. At what age should a child triple their birth weight?
    a) 6 months
    b) 9 months
    c) 12 months
    d) 18 months
    Answer: c
  5. What is the primary symptom of rickets in children?
    a) Skin rash
    b) Abnormal bone growth
    c) Respiratory distress
    d) Hair loss
    Answer: b

6. Pharmacology

  1. What is the antidote for warfarin overdose?
    a) Protamine sulfate
    b) Vitamin K
    c) Sodium bicarbonate
    d) Activated charcoal
    Answer: b
  2. Which class of drugs does aspirin belong to?
    a) Anticoagulant
    b) NSAID
    c) Antipyretic
    d) Antihypertensive
    Answer: b
  3. Insulin is administered subcutaneously at what angle?
    a) 15°
    b) 30°
    c) 45–90°
    d) 120°
    Answer: c
  4. Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?
    a) Kidney
    b) Liver
    c) Spleen
    d) Pancreas
    Answer: b
  5. What is the therapeutic range for digoxin?
    a) 0.5–1.0 ng/mL
    b) 0.8–2.0 ng/mL
    c) 1.0–2.5 ng/mL
    d) 1.5–3.0 ng/mL
    Answer: b

7. Community Health Nursing

  1. What is the main goal of primary healthcare?
    a) Rehabilitation
    b) Health promotion and disease prevention
    c) Treatment of diseases
    d) Specialized care
    Answer: b
  2. What does IMNCI stand for?
    a) Integrated Management of Neonatal and Child Illnesses
    b) Integrated Monitoring of Neonatal Care Initiatives
    c) International Management of Nutrition in Children
    d) Integrated Methods for Neonatal Care Intervention
    Answer: a
  3. Which is the most common occupational hazard for healthcare workers?
    a) Noise pollution
    b) Chemical exposure
    c) Needle-stick injuries
    d) Radiation exposure
    Answer: c
  4. Herd immunity protects:
    a) Only vaccinated individuals
    b) Non-immune individuals in the population
    c) Only those exposed to the pathogen
    d) Only individuals with prior disease exposure
    Answer: b
  5. Which disease is eradicated worldwide?
    a) Polio
    b) Tuberculosis
    c) Smallpox
    d) Measles
    Answer: c

8. Mental Health Nursing

  1. What is the hallmark symptom of schizophrenia?
    a) Mood swings
    b) Hallucinations
    c) Impulsivity
    d) Memory loss
    Answer: b
  2. Which neurotransmitter is associated with depression?
    a) Dopamine
    b) Norepinephrine
    c) Serotonin
    d) GABA
    Answer: c
  3. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is primarily used for:
    a) Bipolar disorder
    b) Severe depression
    c) Anxiety disorders
    d) Personality disorders
    Answer: b
  4. What is the priority in managing a suicidal patient?
    a) Administer medications
    b) Ensure the patient’s safety
    c) Provide counseling
    d) Inform family members
    Answer: b
  5. Which mental health disorder involves repetitive thoughts and behaviors?
    a) Depression
    b) Anxiety disorder
    c) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
    d) Schizophrenia
    Answer: c

9. Nutrition

  1. Which nutrient is the primary energy source?
    a) Proteins
    b) Fats
    c) Carbohydrates
    d) Vitamins
    Answer: c
  2. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin K
    c) Vitamin C
    d) Vitamin D
    Answer: b
  3. Pellagra is caused by a deficiency of:
    a) Riboflavin
    b) Niacin
    c) Thiamine
    d) Vitamin C
    Answer: b
  4. A rich dietary source of iron is:
    a) Apples
    b) Fish
    c) Spinach
    d) Milk
    Answer: c
  5. What is the recommended daily protein intake for an adult?
    a) 1.0 g/kg body weight
    b) 0.8 g/kg body weight
    c) 1.5 g/kg body weight
    d) 2.0 g/kg body weight
    Answer: b

10. Miscellaneous

  1. What is the normal fasting blood sugar range?
    a) 50–70 mg/dL
    b) 70–100 mg/dL
    c) 100–120 mg/dL
    d) 120–140 mg/dL
    Answer: b
  2. CPR stands for:
    a) Cardiopulmonary Recovery
    b) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
    c) Cardiac Pulmonary Rehabilitation
    d) Cardiac Performance Restoration
    Answer: b
  3. What is the most effective way to prevent infection spread?
    a) Vaccination
    b) Wearing gloves
    c) Hand hygiene
    d) Isolating patients
    Answer: c
  4. Which device is used to measure oxygen saturation?
    a) Glucometer
    b) Spirometer
    c) Pulse oximeter
    d) Sphygmomanometer
    Answer: c
  5. What is the normal adult hemoglobin level?
    a) 10–12 g/dL
    b) 12–16 g/dL
    c) 14–18 g/dL
    d) 16–20 g/dL
    Answer: b

11. Fundamentals of Nursing (Continued)

  1. Which method is used to prevent pressure ulcers in immobile patients?
    a) Frequent position changes
    b) Applying ice packs
    c) Limiting fluid intake
    d) Providing bed rest
    Answer: a
  2. What is the primary purpose of using personal protective equipment (PPE)?
    a) To ensure patient comfort
    b) To prevent the spread of infection
    c) To avoid physical injuries
    d) To follow hospital dress code
    Answer: b
  3. What is the normal range for adult blood pressure?
    a) 90/60–120/80 mmHg
    b) 100/80–140/90 mmHg
    c) 80/50–110/70 mmHg
    d) 110/90–150/100 mmHg
    Answer: a
  4. Which position is preferred for a patient with dyspnea?
    a) Supine
    b) Fowler’s
    c) Prone
    d) Trendelenburg
    Answer: b
  5. What is the most important step in hand hygiene?
    a) Using soap and water
    b) Scrubbing all surfaces of the hands
    c) Drying hands thoroughly
    d) Using a nail brush
    Answer: b

12. Anatomy and Physiology (Continued)

  1. Which blood cells are responsible for clotting?
    a) Red blood cells
    b) Platelets
    c) White blood cells
    d) Plasma cells
    Answer: b
  2. The primary function of the small intestine is:
    a) Digestion and absorption
    b) Storage of waste
    c) Production of enzymes
    d) Filtration of toxins
    Answer: a
  3. What is the average cardiac output in a healthy adult?
    a) 2–4 L/min
    b) 4–6 L/min
    c) 6–8 L/min
    d) 8–10 L/min
    Answer: b
  4. Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) produced?
    a) Cerebral cortex
    b) Medulla oblongata
    c) Choroid plexus
    d) Pituitary gland
    Answer: c
  5. What is the name of the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle?
    a) Mitral valve
    b) Tricuspid valve
    c) Pulmonary valve
    d) Aortic valve
    Answer: a

13. Medical-Surgical Nursing (Continued)

  1. Which symptom is most indicative of hypovolemic shock?
    a) Hypertension
    b) Tachycardia
    c) Bradycardia
    d) Hyperthermia
    Answer: b
  2. What is the hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis?
    a) Epigastric pain radiating to the back
    b) Right lower quadrant pain
    c) Diffuse abdominal pain
    d) Hypogastric pain
    Answer: a
  3. Which nursing action is a priority for a patient with a seizure?
    a) Restrain the patient’s movements
    b) Ensure airway patency
    c) Administer antiepileptic drugs immediately
    d) Monitor blood pressure
    Answer: b
  4. What is the classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
    a) Swelling in the affected limb
    b) Cyanosis of the toes
    c) Decreased skin temperature
    d) Numbness in the limb
    Answer: a
  5. Which condition is associated with a “butterfly rash” on the face?
    a) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
    b) Psoriasis
    c) Eczema
    d) Contact dermatitis
    Answer: a

14. Obstetrics and Gynecology (Continued)

  1. What is the normal duration of the second stage of labor?
    a) 1–2 hours
    b) 2–3 hours
    c) 30–60 minutes
    d) 5–10 minutes
    Answer: c
  2. Which condition is characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy?
    a) Placenta previa
    b) Gestational diabetes
    c) Preeclampsia
    d) Hyperemesis gravidarum
    Answer: c
  3. Which test is used to confirm pregnancy?
    a) Ultrasound
    b) HCG hormone test
    c) Blood glucose test
    d) Amniocentesis
    Answer: b
  4. What is the main complication of ectopic pregnancy?
    a) Premature labor
    b) Rupture and hemorrhage
    c) Gestational hypertension
    d) Intrauterine growth retardation
    Answer: b
  5. The first breast milk produced after delivery is called:
    a) Colostrum
    b) Foremilk
    c) Hindmilk
    d) Transitional milk
    Answer: a

15. Pediatrics (Continued)

  1. Which reflex is present at birth and disappears by 4–6 months?
    a) Moro reflex
    b) Babinski reflex
    c) Rooting reflex
    d) Grasp reflex
    Answer: a
  2. What is the normal head circumference of a newborn?
    a) 30–33 cm
    b) 33–35 cm
    c) 36–38 cm
    d) 38–40 cm
    Answer: b
  3. Which condition is commonly associated with prematurity?
    a) Rickets
    b) Hyaline membrane disease
    c) Scurvy
    d) Kwashiorkor
    Answer: b
  4. Which developmental milestone is achieved at 6 months?
    a) Sitting without support
    b) Crawling
    c) Standing with support
    d) Walking
    Answer: a
  5. What is the normal APGAR score for a healthy newborn?
    a) 0–3
    b) 4–6
    c) 7–10
    d) 10–12
    Answer: c

16. Pharmacology (Continued)

  1. What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
    a) Naloxone
    b) Protamine sulfate
    c) Vitamin K
    d) Atropine
    Answer: a
  2. Which drug is used to treat anaphylaxis?
    a) Epinephrine
    b) Diazepam
    c) Lorazepam
    d) Paracetamol
    Answer: a
  3. Which is a common side effect of chemotherapy?
    a) Neutropenia
    b) Hypercalcemia
    c) Bradycardia
    d) Hypertension
    Answer: a
  4. Which drug class does metformin belong to?
    a) Sulfonylureas
    b) Biguanides
    c) Thiazolidinediones
    d) Meglitinides
    Answer: b
  5. What is the most common side effect of furosemide?
    a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hyponatremia
    d) Hypernatremia
    Answer: b

17. Community Health Nursing (Continued)

  1. Which disease is spread by Aedes mosquitoes?
    a) Malaria
    b) Dengue
    c) Tuberculosis
    d) Typhoid
    Answer: b
  2. What is the incubation period for hepatitis B?
    a) 10–20 days
    b) 45–160 days
    c) 30–45 days
    d) 20–40 days
    Answer: b
  3. What is the recommended gap between two doses of DPT vaccine?
    a) 2 weeks
    b) 4 weeks
    c) 6 weeks
    d) 8 weeks
    Answer: b
  4. Which test is used to detect tuberculosis?
    a) Widal test
    b) Mantoux test
    c) ELISA test
    d) Coombs test
    Answer: b
  5. What is the primary mode of HIV transmission?
    a) Airborne
    b) Sexual contact
    c) Waterborne
    d) Vector-borne
    Answer: b

18. Miscellaneous

  1. What is the color of a biohazard waste bag for infectious materials?
    a) Yellow
    b) Red
    c) Blue
    d) Black
    Answer: a
  2. Which scale is used to assess pain intensity?
    a) Braden scale
    b) Glasgow scale
    c) Numeric rating scale
    d) Norton scale
    Answer: c
  3. What is the normal range of potassium in the blood?
    a) 2.5–3.5 mEq/L
    b) 3.5–5.0 mEq/L
    c) 5.5–6.5 mEq/L
    d) 6.5–8.0 mEq/L
    Answer: b
  4. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin C
    c) Vitamin D
    d) Vitamin K
    Answer: b
  5. The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates:
    a) Cognitive function
    b) Eye, verbal, and motor responses
    c) Pain intensity
    d) Muscle strength
    Answer: b
  6. What is the normal adult respiratory rate?
    a) 8–12 breaths/min
    b) 12–20 breaths/min
    c) 20–28 breaths/min
    d) 28–36 breaths/min
    Answer: b
  7. Which organism causes malaria?
    a) Plasmodium
    b) Giardia
    c) Trypanosoma
    d) Leishmania
    Answer: a
  8. Which position is used for a patient in shock?
    a) Supine
    b) Trendelenburg
    c) Fowler’s
    d) Lithotomy
    Answer: b
  9. What is the recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding?
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months
    Answer: b
  10. What is the most common nosocomial infection?
    a) Pneumonia
    b) Urinary tract infection
    c) Surgical site infection
    d) Bloodstream infection
    Answer: b
  11. Which test measures kidney function?
    a) ALT
    b) AST
    c) BUN
    d) CRP
    Answer: c
  12. What is the normal pH range of blood?
    a) 6.5–7.0
    b) 7.35–7.45
    c) 7.5–7.8
    d) 6.8–7.2
    Answer: b
  13. What is the first step in managing a bleeding wound?
    a) Apply ice packs
    b) Apply direct pressure
    c) Elevate the wound
    d) Cover with a sterile dressing
    Answer: b
  14. What does BMI stand for?
    a) Basal Metabolic Index
    b) Body Mass Index
    c) Basic Measurement Indicator
    d) Bone Mass Index
    Answer: b
  15. Which vaccine prevents cervical cancer?
    a) Hepatitis B vaccine
    b) HPV vaccine
    c) BCG vaccine
    d) MMR vaccine
    Answer: b

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